"My point is, is there a point where you really are soaking the rich, where the carrying capacity of this small group of people has been exceeded and there's just no way you can keep lumping all of the problems of the finances of the United States on 1 percent of those households?" - Wall Street Journal reporter Jonathan Weisman, 7/13/09
My newspaper column today has elicited a pretty nasty backlash from some corporate media big wigs that I will fill you in on next week (it's not really a big deal - but it is extremely revelatory about the way the D.C. press corps sees itself). But just as a preview, I'd like everyone's opinion on a simple question: Do you think the way a reporter asks a question can transmit subjective ideology/opinion, or do you think that a question is automatically objective because it is a question and not a declarative statement? Put another way, can a reporter couch any = framing/assertion ("When did you stop raping your wife?") as a question, and insist that because it's a question, it's factually inaccurate for anyone to say the question transmits opinion?
As a specific example, I offer the above question that was asked by a reporter at a recent televised White House press briefing. The reporter was asking about why the president supports a tax on the richest one percent.
So again, in general do you think the way a reporter asks a question can transmit subjective ideology/opinion/assumptions, or do you think that a question is automatically objective because it is a question and not a declarative statement? And do you think it is an empirical, unquestionable fact that this specific question is 100% objective - and that to say otherwise is factually inaccurate (rather than, say, an opinion someone can rightfully have)?
Discuss - and I'll fill you in on why I ask these questions on Monday.
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